|
|
||||||||
| vBookie Event: Martinez vs. Barker (Boxing) |
| This event is over. |
|
|
![]() |
|
|
Thread Tools |
|
|
#18 |
|
Belt holder
ESB Addict
Join Date: Dec 2010
Posts: 1,995
vCash: 500 |
Honestly, these odds aren't that bad considering it's p4p #3 (formerly 2) against a nobody (though he's a decent nobody, as far as nobodies go).
All in on SSSSSSSSSSSSSSERGIO. |
|
|
|
#28 | |
|
Journeyman
Join Date: Jun 2010
Posts: 93
vCash: 500 |
Quote:
The way I see it, the moment you see 0:00 AND the clock IS started, 0:00 is already completed and left behind, and the period between 0:00 and 0:01 is part of 0:01. (Note that there are 60ms in-between into which the first second is in fact divided.) Likewise, once you see 1:30, half of the round is complete, and the next second already starts counting. Therefore the period between after 1:30 is displayed by/on the clock and until you see 1:31 would be part of 1:31, and is technically part of the second half of a 3-minute round. Further, once you see 3:00, the round is complete. It won't be logical to say 3:00 won't be complete until the clock is 3:01. So strictly technically speaking, the end of the first half of a 3:00 minute round is exactly 1:30. This could explain why the current millennium commenced once the World clock struck midnight on 12-31-1999 and we saw 00:00:00 on 01-01-2000, because the period between then and midnight on 12-31-2001 was part of the year 2001. Having said all the above, I can see why some, arguably including most bookies, would interpret the completion of the first half of a round as 1:31, simply "just to be sure." Even I play/subject that kind of mind game on myself. Just my $0.02. P34c3 |
|
|
![]() |
| Thread Tools | |
|
|