If we wanted to calculate a boxer’s winning percentage at a certain venue, would we simply get total number of bouts by adding the wins and losses together? And from there we’d divide number of wins by total number of bouts at given venue (for example, a boxer with 2 wins, 2 losses, and 1 draw at MGM Grand would have a .500 winning percentage at that venue, correct)?
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How would we figure out a boxer's winning percentage in boxing at a certain venue, would we simply get total number of bouts by adding the wins and losses together? From there we’d divide number of wins by total number of bouts at given venue (for example, a boxer with 2 wins, 2 losses, and 1 draw at MGM Grand would have a .500 winning percentage at that venue, correct)?
Getting ****ed up 276 times for other people to showcase their skills on you that takes a really special person
This is elementary arithmetic. But, to answer your question, take the number of wins at the venue, divided by the number of bouts at the venue, to get the winning percentage. In your example the winning percentage is 40%.
Thanks for responding. Okay, but if there was one draw then how does that factor in? Two wins, two losses and one draw equals a .500 winning percentage, shouldn't it? That's what I mean, seems easy to figure out but...
This reminds me of that thread on the bodybuilding forum where they're arguing about how many days are in a week. But two wins out of five is 40% anyway. I assume in American sport that's presented as 0.4(00).
Can't see it myself. Over here in the UK, there was a journeyman called Pete Buckley. Pete won 32 of 300 fights. He earned a decent living, paid his mortgage off and sent his daughter to private school but was far from being a millionaire let alone making $100M + .
From what I've gathered, He allegedly earned between $500-$3500 per fight. He's never earned more that $3500 for a single fight. If you calculate that he made $3500 per fight, for all 359 fights (which he didn't), his ceiling of earned purses would be $1,256,500.00.