Is beating Juan Diaz reason enough for a boxer to be crowned P4P #1?

It all depends on if Pacquiao can get past Hatton ... and I don't think he can --

 

I think it was Pac's 2nd win vs JMM coupled with Floyd's retirement that made him #1 P4P since he was #2 to Floyd.

 

Isn't he the same David Diaz who beat Santacruz to take the WBC crown?
And isn't Santacruz, the same Santacruz who gave Casa hell in their fight which most fans see as a win for him?

 

DDiaz did not become a world champion by accident, he had some skills and granite chin but, those were not enough to stop Pacquiao. DDiaz was an olympian, and became a champion. DDiaz is indeed an elite lightweight after all he had a belt that he protected twice (thrice?). BTW DDiaz had only one lost when he fought Pac. His record was similiar to JDiaz.

 

This is Idiotic! Did they make Nate P4P#1?atsch

 

PBF retirement and 2nd fight of PAC and JMM makes PAC 1 P4P. The D Diaz just icing on the cake. Until PAC not loss/retire he will remain #1 like floyd or else JMM himself beat PAC when they meet again for the 3rd time then no question he must be crowned P4P #1.

 

You the official esb spokeman?

 

Nope. But im not claiming to speak for others am i?:yep

 

If you said many people saw JMM winning in the 2nd fight, I would readily agree but since you said most people, I say ... only in your dreams!!!

 

The question itself is idiotic because it implies that a single win is enough for a boxer to be considered P4P#1.

 

Oh Yeah!? Did he beat Floyd while we were sleeping? I can recall that Floyd retired as P4P#1 and his retirement coupled with Pac close win over JMM made Pac the #1. Pac cemented his being #1 by KOing David Diaz and Oscar in his last two fights. Now do you consider KO wins over Casa and Juan better than KO wins over David and Oscar?

 

Yeah, That's right! And that is ... if Pac didn't KO both David Diaz and Oscar! :good

 

Marquez was a great fighter before he fought Diaz.