As I always understood it, if you owned the WBA belt and then unified with another belt holder ie WBO, WBC, IBF, the owner of the WBA belt then becomes WBA Super champ, and the WBA then declare a vacant WBA belt to be contested. So WBA Champ Mickel Kessler became WBA Super champ after beating WBC Champ M Beyer. Kessler loses to Calzaghe, and Calzaghe vacates all the belts. Kessler later wins the VACANT WBA Super belt against D Sartison? A Ward beats Kessler and is now WBA Super champ D Sartison wins the vacant WBA belt to be WBA champ How is this when neither fighter holds another world title? And what would be the case if Sartison unifies with another title holder? I thought if a fighter vacates the WBA super belt it no longer exists until a WBA champ unifies again Explain
The WBA elevated Kessler to Super champ without unifying so he wouldn't be stripped for not fighting mandatories during the Super Six. They did the same thing for Margarito at Arum's behest in late '08. Instead of giving fighters extensions on their mandatories if they have multiple titles or other obligations, they came up with this scam to collect more sanctioning fees.
It is supposed to work like how you explained it but these sanctioning bodies just make up their own rules as they go along. Mosely is WBA super champ despite not holding another belt. Marquez-Diaz was for the VACANT WBA Super belt despite neither fighter holding an ABC belt going into the fight.
